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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

09.06.2025 09:27

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

There's no rule.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

During the Atlmark incident in 1940, the Brit war criminals violated Norwegian neutrality. Hitler could then justify invading Norway. Have the Brits ever apologized for violating Norwegian neutrality?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

You'll usually find your answer there.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

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Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

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Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.